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WASSCE 2022 physics questions and answers [Objective Test – Paper 1]

Instruction: Answer all the questions. Think carefully before you shade the answer spaces; erase completely any answer(s) you wish to change. Do all rough work on this question paper. Now answer the following questions

  1. The instrument used to measure relative humidity is a
    • A. barometer
    • B. hydrometer
    • C. hygrometer
    • D. manometer
  2. Which part of the human eye performs the same function as the diaphragm in a lens camera?
    • A. Choroid
    • B. Iris
    • C. Cornea
    • D. Retina
  3. An electron moves from an energy level of -8.6 eV to another level of -3.5 eV. Determine the frequency of the absorbed radiation. [1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J, h = 6.6 x 10-34Js ]
    • A. 1.24 x 1015 Hz
    • B. 2.93 x 1015 Hz
    • C. 3.59 x 1016 Hz
    • D. 5.39 x 1016 Hz
  4.  A ball of mass 0.8kg is dropped from a height H. Just before hitting the ground, its velocity is 5.0 m/s. Determine H. [g = 10 m/s2]   
    • A. 1.25 m
    • B. 1.60 m
    • C. 4.00 m
    • D. 6.25 m
  5. Which of the following statements about latent heat are correct? I. When ice melts, latent heat is absorbed.  II. When water freezes, latent heat is given off. III. When water evaporates, latent heat is absorbed. IV. When water vapour condenses, latent heat is absorbed.
    • A. I and IV only
    • B. II and III only
    • C. I, II and III only
    • D. II, III and IV only
  6. Increasing the frequency of sound wave produces a sound with
    • A. longer wavelength
    • B. reduced loudness
    • C. higher pitch
    • D. more overtones
  7. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the mode of oscillation of air in a tube for the first overtone?
  8. In a mass spectrometer, an ion of charge, q, and mass, m, moving in a path of radius, r, in a field of flux density, B, has a speed of
    • A. mr/qB
    • B. mq/qr
    • C. Bqr/m
    • D. mq/Br
  9. A sound of frequency 512 Hz reaches a listener 100 m away. If the sound travels in air at s.t.p., what is its wavelength? [speed of sound in air = 331 m/s]
    • A. 0.195m
    • B. 0.646m
    • C. 1.550m
    • D. 5.120m
  10. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin and few of the particles were deflected considerably. This shows that the nucleus of an atom
    • A. contains protons and electrons distributed in a tiny volume.
    • B. is positive charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume.
    • C. is distributed in a tiny volume and emits alpha particles.
    • D. is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles
  11. A charge of 10C is transferred across a potential difference of 220 V. Determine the work done.
    • A. 22 J
    • B. 210 J
    • C. 230 J
    • D. 2200 J
  12. A solenoid is constructed by winding an insulated copper on a long test tube. A constant direct current is passed through the solenoid. Which of the following actions will not increase the strength of the magnetic field of the solenoid? Inserting a
    • A. nickel rod in the test tube
    • B. brass rod in the test tube
    • C. soft iron rod in the test tube
    • D. steel rod in the test tube
  13. The following statements are advantages of a solid dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor except that
    • A. it keeps the plates at a fixed separation.
    • B. the maximum potential difference the capacitor can withstand is increased.
    • C. the capacitance of the capacitor of given dimensions is much greater than that of the plates in a vacuum.
    • D. it increases the electric conduction of the capacitor
  14. Which of the following statements about a ferromagnetic material is correct?. It
    • A. attracts non magnetic materials.
    • B. has low relative permeability.
    • C. repels other magnetic materials
    • D. has a high susceptibility
  15. A ball, P, is released from the roof of a building at the same time as another ball, Q, is thrown vertically upward from the base of the building. Which of the following statements is correct?
    • A. The acceleration of P is greater than that of Q and both are in the same direction
    • B. The acceleration of P is equal to that of Q and both are in the same direction
    • C. The acceleration of P is equal to that of Q and are in opposite directions.
    • C. The acceleration of P is less than that of Q and both are in same direction.
  16. A planet has mass, M, and radius R, If the universal gravitational constant is G, what is the expression for the escape velocity of an object on the planet?
    • A. (2G/R)1/2
    • B. (GR/2)1/2
    • C. (GM/R)1/2
    • D. (GR/2)1/2
  17. The specific latent heat of vapourization of lead is 8.7 x 105 J/kg. This means that 8.7 x 105 J of thermal energy is required to change
    • A. 1 kg of molten lead to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.
    • B. 1 kg of solid lead to vapour at constant temperature and pressure
    • C. a given mass of molten lead to vaour at constant temperature and pressure.
    • D. 1 kg of molten lead to vapour for every degree rise in temperature.
  18. A 100 kg device is pulled up a plane inclined at 300 to the horizontal with a force of 1000 N. If the coefficient of friction between the device and the surface is 0.25, determine the total force opposing the motion. [ g = 10 m/s2] be
    • A. 216.5 N
    • B. 283.5 N
    • C. 716.5 N
    • D. 975.0N
  19. Two objects, A and B accelerate from rest at uniform rates. B accelerates twice as A. Compared to A, B travels
    • A. Two times as far
    • B. three times as far
    • C. six times as far
    • D. at the same distance as A
  20. The diagram below illustrates a hot metal suspended at the centre of a closed uniform box. Thermometers E, F, G and H are placed in contact with four sides of the box. Which of the thermometers  would register the highest temperature?                           wassce 2022 physics questions and answers
    • A . E
    • B. F
    • C. G
    • D. H
  21. A liquid is left in an open dish. After several days, there is less liquid in the dish. Which of the following statements explain this observation?
    • A. most energetic molecules leave the surface and return
    • B. most energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air.
    • C. least energetic molecules leave the surface and return
    • D. least energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into air.
  22. The colour of the visible light region of the electromagnetic spectrum that have the shortest and longest wavelengths respectively are
    • A. red and blue
    • B. yellow and blue
    • C. indigo and violet
    • D. violet and red
  23. Which of the following equations is not a correct mirror formula? [The symbols have their usual meanings]
    • A. 1/f = 1/u + 1/v
    • B. N = 360/θ   – 1
    • C. f = 1/D
    • D. m = v/u
  24. An atom in an excited state is one whose
    • A. potential energy is minimum
    • B. potential energy is maximum
    • C. electron are in the conduction band
    • D. electrons have moved to a higher energy level
  25. The conclusive test for magnetism in a steel bar suspended horizontally at its midpoint is when the bar
    • A. always settles in the magnetic N-S direction
    • B. always settles in the magnetic E-W direction
    • C. is repelled by a magnet
    • C. is attracted by a magnet
  26. Which of the following  devices is used to compare the relative magnitudes of charges on two given bodies?
    • A. Electrophorus
    • B. Ebonite rod
    • C. Proof plane
    • D. Gold leaf electroscope
  27. A direct current cannot pass through pass through a parallel plate capacitor because
    • A. the plates are non-conducting
    • B. the plates have equal but opposite charges
    • C. there is a leakage of charge from the plates
    • D. the dielectric between the plate is non-conducting
  28. The process of producing electric current by a changing magnetic field is referred to as
    • A. flux linkage
    • B. magnet induction
    • C. electromagnetic induction
    • D. electrostatic induction
  29. The sagging of overhead electrical wires is caused by
    • A. rough handling
    • B. radiation of heat
    • C. linear expansion
    • D. gravitational attraction
  30. A cell of emf 2V has an internal resistance of 0.5Ω. A current of 0.4A passes through an external resistor P. Determine the resistance of P.
    • A. 5.0 Ω
    • B. 4.5 Ω
    • C. 4.0 Ω
    • D. 1.0 Ω
  31. The property of a body that determines the direction of heat flow when the body is in contact with another body is the
    • A. power
    • B. heat capacity
    • C. temperature.
    • D. mass
  32. In an RLC series circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductor are 30V and 40V respectively. Determine the voltage across the capacitor
    • A. 30 V
    • B. 40 V
    • C. 50 V
    • D. 70 V
  33. The purpose of commutators in a direct current motor is to
    • A. increase the efficiency of the motor
    • B. reverse the direction of the current after every half rotation
    • C. enable a uniform couple to act on the coil
    • D. increase the number of rotations per second.
  34. A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a speed of 200 m/s into a lead block of mass 0.95 kg at rest. Given that the lead block moves after the impact, determine its kinetic energy.
    • A. 50 J
    • B. 100 J
    • C. 150 J
    • D. 200 J
  35. What is the name given to the force of attraction between the nucleons in the nucleus of an atom?
    • A. Gravitational force
    • B. Nuclear force
    • C. Electrostatic force
    • D. Magnetic force
  36. In a controlled thermal fission reactor, the use of control rods will not affect the
    • A. speed of the neutrons released on fission
    • B. rate of production of the neutrons
    • C. energy generated in the nuclear reactor
    • C. amount of radiations produced in the nuclear reactor
  37. The most appropriate value of fuse for a kettle rated 220 V, 1.06 kW is
    • A. 3 A
    • B. 4 A
    • C. 5 A
    • D. 6 A
  38. The type of mirror used by dentists to inspect the teeth of patients is a
    • A. convex mirror
    • B. concave mirror
    • C. plane mirror
    • D. cylindrical mirror

The diagram below illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 25 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 m/s. Use the diagram the answer question 39 and 40.

39. Determine the wavelength of the waves.

    • A. 0.25 m
    • B. 0.50 m
    • C. 0.75 m
    • D. 1.00 m

40. Determine the frequency of the wave

      • A. 24 Hz
      • B. 192 Hz
      • C. 240 Hz
      • D. 286 Hz

41. Which of the following statements about the properties of the electric field produced by charged parallel plates is not correct?

        • A. The electric field in the region outside the parallel plate is zero, except for the edge effects.
        • B. The electric field is uniform everywhere in the space between the parallel plates
        • C. The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates, except near the edges, depends on the magnitude of the charge on each plate.
        • D. The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates, is directly proportional to the magnitude of the charge on each plate.

42. A car, P, with a velocity of 30 m/s is travelling in the same direction as a car, Q, with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity of  P relative to Q is

          • A. 50 m/s
          • B. 45 m/s
          • C. 20 m/s
          • D. 10 m/s

43. The range of wavelength of the infrared waves in an electromagnetic spectrum is 10-3 m to 10-6 m. The wavelength of the radiation is

            • A. equal to 10-3 m
            • B. longer than 103 m
            • C. shorter than 10-6 m
            • D. longer than 10-6 m

44. When an electron jumps directly from an orbit of n = 4 to n = 2,

              • A. a photon is emitted
              • B. a photon is absorbed
              • C. two photons are emitted
              • D. two photons are absorbed

45. When a light-weight body and a massive body are acted upon by the same force for the same period of time, the

          • A. momenta of both bodies remain the same
          • B. lighter body has a higher momentum
          • C. massive body has a higher momentum
          • D. massive body builds up a higher velocity

46. Which of the following devices is associated with alternating currents only

            • A. Induction coil
            • B. Lead-acid accumulator
            • C. Step-up transformer
            • D. moving-coil galvanometer

47. A body starts with an initial velocity of 20 m/s and moves with a uniform acceleration, a, for 15 seconds. Which of the following equations represents the distance, S, travelled?

              • A. S = 300 + 225/2a
              • B. S = 300 + 2a/225
              • C. S = 300 + 225a/2
              • D. S = 300a + 225/2

48. The ration of maximum range to maximum height of a projectile is 4. Determine the angle of projection.

          • A. 00
          • B. 300
          • C. 450
          • D. 600

49. The following statements are observations made about a towing vehicle and a bus that is being towed.

  • I. The force exerted on the bus by towing vehicle is of the same magnitude as the force that the bus exerts on the road.
  • II. The force exerted on the bus by towing vehicle is of the same magnitude as the force exerted on the towing vehicle by the bus.
  • III. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus greater than the force exerted by the bus on the towing vehicle.
  • IV. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus that is the same as the force the road exerts on the towing vehicle

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

            • A. I only
            • B. II only
            • C. I, II and III only
            • D. II, III and IV only

50. wassce 2022 physics questions and answers

The diagram above illustrates a velocity-time graph. Determine the distance between X and Y.

                • A. 10.0 m
                • B. 40.0 m
                • C. 80.0 m
                • D. 160.0 m

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